Use the first three non-zero terms of the Maclaurin series for \(\cos x\) to find the Maclaurin series for \(\mathrm{g}\left( x \right)\), where \(\mathrm{g}\left( x \right)={{\cos }^{6}}x\), up to and including the term in \({{x}^{4}}\).[3]
Use your answer to part (i) to give an approximation for \(\displaystyle\displaystyle \displaystyle\int_{0}^{a}{\mathrm{g}\left( x \right)}\mathrm{ d}x\) in terms of \(a\), and evaluate this approximation in the case where \(a=\frac{1}{4}\pi \).[3]
Use your calculator to find an accurate value for \(\displaystyle\displaystyle \displaystyle\int_{0}^{\frac{1}{4}\pi }{\mathrm{g}\left( x \right)}\mathrm{ d}x\). Why is the approximation in part (ii)(a) not very good?[2]