Let f(x)=(x+1)2 for x = -1. Explain why f is a function and is one–one. Would it still be one–one i

Question

Let f(x)=(x+1)2 for x >= -1. Explain why f is a function and is one–one. Would it still be one–one if the domain were all real numbers? Justify your answer.

Accepted Answer

One–one on $[-1,\infty)$; many–one on $\mathbb R$, since $\mathrm f(-2)=\mathrm f(0)=1$.

A domain changes a mapping

A domain changes a mapping

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