The random variable \(X\) has a binomial distribution \(\mathrm{B}\left( n,p \right)\), where \(0 < p < 1\), and \(n\) is an integer. Show that
\(\frac{\mathrm{P}\left( X=r \right)}{\mathrm{P}\left( X=r-1 \right)}=\left( \frac{n-r+1}{r} \right)\left( \frac{p}{1-p} \right)\).[3]
Hence find a condition relating \(n\) and \(p\) such that \(X\) has two values for its mode, and determine these two values, giving your answer in terms of \(n\) and \(p\).[3]
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